General English · General English · Full Section · Worksheet
Sectional Test 1
Thirty multiple choice questions drawn from every topic in Grammar, Vocabulary and Comprehension — two questions from each of the fifteen topics, matching the weight of the real AAI ATC General English section. 5 of these are real previous year questions. No question is repeated across the four sectional tests. An answer key follows at the end.
30questions
35 minsuggested time
5verified PYQs
MCQformat throughout
Score0 correct · 0 of 30 attempted
Before you begin
Formulas you will need
Key formulas
This is a full-section mock, not a single-topic drill — treat it as timed practice under real conditions, about twenty-five minutes for the thirty questions Grammar carries the most questions, matching its weight in the actual exam, followed by Vocabulary and then Comprehension If a question type feels shaky, note the topic and go back to that topic's dedicated worksheet for focused practice
How to use this worksheet. Attempt this exactly as you would the real section: one steady pass, marking anything doubtful rather than stalling on it, then a second pass at the end. Reviewing which topics cost you the most time here is more useful than the score itself.
Section A · Grammar
Mixed topics, ten questions
Covers tenses, subject-verb agreement, articles and prepositions, active and passive voice, direct and indirect speech, spotting errors, and sentence improvement — two questions from each of the seven Grammar topics.
Q1PYQ 2021 · Shift 3
Select the grammatically correct sentence.
This is a first conditional: the if clause takes the present simple and the main clause takes will. Three of the options put will or would inside the if clause, which is the single commonest conditional error.
Q2
Choose the correct sentence.
A third-person singular subject takes goes in the simple present.
Q3
Fill in the blank. Twenty rupees ______ not a large sum.
A sum of money is one amount, so the verb is singular.
Q4
Fill in the blank. Neither of the answers ______ correct.
Neither is singular and takes is, however plural the noun after of may look.
Q5
Fill in the blank. The book is ______ the table.
On indicates contact with a surface.
Q6
Fill in the blank. He plays ______ guitar very well.
Musical instruments take the. Games and sports, by contrast, take no article at all.
Q7
Change to the active. The letter was posted by Ravi.
Moving back to the active, the agent becomes the subject and the tense stays past simple.
Q8
Change to the passive. They will announce the results tomorrow.
The simple future passive is will be + past participle.
Q9
Change to indirect speech. He said, “I shall go tomorrow.”
Two shifts are needed: shall becomes would and tomorrow becomes the next day. Missing the time word is the usual half-mark error.
Q10
Change to indirect speech. She said to me, “Are you coming?”
A yes-or-no question takes asked plus if, and the word order becomes that of a statement.
Q11
Select the part that contains the error. Neither of the two proposals / were acceptable / to the committee / at that stage.
Neither means not one and is singular, so it takes was acceptable.
Q12
Select the part that contains the error. If it will rain tomorrow, / we shall cancel / the picnic / and stay at home.
Will can never appear in the if clause of a first conditional. It should be If it rains.
Q13
Select the option that best substitutes the underlined part. I have been working here for 2019.
A point in time takes since.
Q14
Select the option that best substitutes the underlined part. Divide the money among the two brothers.
Between is used for two.
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Section B · Vocabulary
Mixed topics, ten questions
Covers synonyms, antonyms, idioms and phrases, one-word substitution, and spellings — two questions from each of the five Vocabulary topics.
Q15
Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word. The crowd grew boisterous.
Boisterous means noisy and energetic.
Q16
Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word. His remarks were trivial.
Trivial means of little value or importance.
Q17
Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. DILIGENT
Indolent means lazy.
Q18
Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. TRANSPARENT
Opaque means not allowing light through.
Q19PYQ 2025 · Shift 1
Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Bite the bullet
To bite the bullet is to endure something unpleasant and get it done. The phrase comes from battlefield surgery before anaesthetic.
Q20
Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. To turn over a new leaf
It means to reform and make a fresh start.
Q21
Select the one-word substitute. One who walks on foot
A pedestrian travels on foot, from the Latin ped- foot.
Q22
Select the one-word substitute. The study of insects
Entomology is the study of insects, the counterpart of the previous question.
Q23
Select the correctly spelt word.
Accommodation has double c and double m — it accommodates two of each.
Q24
Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
It should be fulfil, with a single l in each syllable in British spelling.
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Section C · Comprehension
Mixed topics, ten questions
Covers reading comprehension, cloze test, and para jumbles — two questions from each of the three Comprehension topics.
Q25
Snow's professional speciality was:
He was an obstetrician. He is called the father of epidemiology, which is a later description of his contribution, not his profession — a distinction the question relies on.
Q26PYQ 2021 · Shift 3
As per the passage, Sreedharan had an uneventful career in the Indian Railways from ______ to ______.
The passage gives December 1954 to June 1990. Option 3 reverses the order so that the end date precedes the start, which is impossible — checking that the dates run forwards eliminates it instantly.
Q27PYQ 2023 · Morning
Fill in blank (5).
The subject is he, but the modal will just before the blank forces the base form: lay. This whole passage, including the phrase lay two to one, is drawn from a real AAI comprehension passage about lottery players and superstition.
Q28
Fill in blank (2).
Almost nothing means close to nothing at all, which fits the description of severe hunger. Hardly would need a different construction.
Q29PYQ 2021 · Shift 2
Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the right order to form a meaningful sentence. A. to lift 8 million people B. Odisha is the only state C. in the shortest possible time D. out of poverty
The sentence reads Odisha is the only state to lift 8 million people out of poverty in the shortest possible time, which is B, A, D, C. The subject B must open the sentence, and out of poverty naturally follows 8 million people before the time phrase closes it.
Q30
Parts of a sentence are given in jumbled order. Arrange them to form a meaningful sentence. A. is essential B. for a healthy body C. a balanced diet D. and an active mind
A balanced diet is essential for a healthy body and an active mind is C, A, B, D.
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Answer key
Answers
Check only after you have attempted every question. Tap any question above to see the full explanation.
All thirty questions with the formula sheet printed on the front page and ruled working space for your circuit reductions. Print it, solve it, keep it.
Seven questions from one chapter in a single year.
Live classes cover the full Class 11 and 12 physics and maths syllabus for AAI ATC, taught from the real question papers with the method for each question type drilled until it is automatic.